I would like to know under which circumstances the following triple integral can be evaluated analytically as $$ \int_{k=0}^{k=\infty} \int_{q=0}^{q=\infty} \int_{t=0}^{t=R} f(k,q,t,r) \,\mathrm{d}t \,\mathrm{d}q \,\mathrm{d}k \stackrel{?}{=} g(r) \qquad\qquad (0 < t,r < R) \, , $$ where the two function $f$ and $g$ are given explicitely by $$ f(k,q,t,r) = \frac{4qk}{\pi \alpha^4} \, \left( Q-q\right) \left( K+k \right) \left( e^{-k} - e^{-K} \right) \sin(qt) \sin(kt) J_1(qr) \, , $$ and $$ g(r) = \frac{r}{s^3} \left( \frac{6}{\alpha^2 s^2} -2e^{-\alpha s} \left( 1 + \frac{3}{\alpha s} + \frac{3}{\alpha^2 s^2} \right) \right) \, . $$ Here, we have defined for the sake of convenience the abbreviations $K = \sqrt{k^2+\alpha^2}$, $Q = \sqrt{q^2+\alpha^2}$, and $s=\sqrt{1+r^2}$. Here, $\alpha$ is a positive real number.
Please note that $t \in [0,R]$ and that $k,q \in [0,\infty)$.
A numerical evaluation shows that the result is surprisingly accurate up to a very small additive constant that I do not succeed to evaluate exactly yet.
As $R\to\infty$, it can be checked that the identity is exact.
How I proceeded is to use inverse Hankel transform wrt the variable $q$ and inverse sine Fourier transform wrt the variable $k$. Even though I know that $$ \int_0^\infty r g(r) J_1(qr) \, \mathrm{d}r = \frac{2q}{\alpha^2} \left( e^{-q} - e^{-Q}\right) \, , $$ I was unable to rigorously prove that.
In particular, in the limit $\alpha \to 0$, this can easily be shown upon using the identity $$ \int_0^\infty \sin(qt) J_1(qr) \, \mathrm{d}q = \frac{t H(r-t)}{r \left( r^2-t^2\right)^\frac{1}{2}} \, . $$
Any insight is highly appreciated. Thank you.