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How to prove this ? $$-\frac{1}{2} = \lim_{x\to+\infty}\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}(-1)^n \frac{x^{2n-1}}{(2n)! \sqrt{\ln 2n}}$$

It reminded me of the fact that

$$-\frac\pi2 = \lim_{x\to+\infty}\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}(-1)^n \frac{x^{2n-1}}{(2n)! \ln 2n}$$

that has been proven here :

A curious limit for $-\frac{\pi}{2}$

mick
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1 Answers1

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Some partial results seem to indicate that the suggested limit is not $-1/2$. From numerical simulations with $x$ increasing up to 1 million or so, I observed that the sum exhibits oscillations which increase in amplitude and decrease in frequency w.r.t. to $x$. This would suggest that the integral diverges. However, I seem to be unable to find a proof for this, as my initial plan to evaluate the integral with the stationary phase method fails. Hence, at the moment all this remains as speculations.

As the sum is difficult to numerically calculate even with modest $x$, one instead has by the Lindelöf summation formula

$$ \sum_{n=m}^{\infty} (-1)f(n) = (-1)^m \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f\left(m - \frac{1}{2}+iy\right) \frac{dy}{\cosh(\pi y)} $$

which in this case is nicer to work with, atleast numerically. Here, with

$$S(x) = \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}(-1)^n f(n), \quad f(n) = \frac{x^{2n-1}}{\Gamma(2n+1)\sqrt{\ln(2n)}}$$

one may write

$$ S(x) = f(1) + \sum_{n=2}^{\infty}(-1)^n f(n) = -\frac{x}{2\sqrt{\ln(2)}} + \frac{x^2}{2}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{x^{2iy}}{\Gamma(4+2iy)\sqrt{\ln(3+2iy)}}\frac{dy}{\cosh(\pi y)} $$

where I have drawn out $n=1$ to avoid issues with the natural logarithm in the denominator in cases where $y=0$. Now, the function within the integral is even w.r.t. to the real part and odd w.r.t. to the imaginary part. Hence, we have

$$ S(x) = -\frac{x}{2\sqrt{\ln(2)}} + x^2 \Re \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{e^{2iy\ln(x)}}{\Gamma(4+2iy)\sqrt{\ln(3+2iy)}}\frac{dy}{\cosh(\pi y)} $$

As a sanity check, e.g. letting $x=10$ gives that the original sum equals $-0.5209$ whereas numerical integration gives $-0.5208$. Calculating the the value of $S(x)$ for $x$ ranging between $0$ and $1000$ gives the result below.

enter image description here

For the next part, my initial assumption was to use the stationary phase method, but I seem to have hoped for too much as the real part of the integral with the method evaluates each term to 0.

This is seen by Theorem 13.2 in Olver's book Asymptotics and Special Functions which gives

$$ \int_{0}^{\infty} e^{2iy\ln(x)} q(y) dy \sim -\lim_{y\to 0+} \left(q(y)\right) \cdot \frac{1}{2i\ln(x)} = \frac{i\ln^{-1}(x)}{12\sqrt{\ln(3)}} $$

where $q(y) = \left(\Gamma(4+2iy)\sqrt{\ln(3+2iy)}\cosh(\pi y)\right)^{-1}$. Hence, the real part is $0$. Using partial integrations to calculate additional terms doesn't help either, as all terms will be imaginary.

AxelT
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    Nice plot and observations. I think I can prove convergeance but It will take some time. I also noticed your plot seems to approach $\frac{-1}{\pi}$ but we need more data ofcourse. It would be fun if it would be true. However I still think it could be $\frac{-1}{2}$ because I think the values go up and down first. – mick May 17 '23 at 20:20
  • @mick, From the simulations, the sum doesn’t seem to approach a specific value for x ranging from 1 to 1 million, given that the numerical integration works. I can add some additional figures if would make things clearer. My best vet is that the sum diverges but it would be nice to arrive at a proof whether this is true or not. So I hope you’ll arrive at an answer! I think this approach can be used to evaluate the other sum you had asked about earlier, I have some rehersing on complex analysis to do but eventually I hope to be able to give an alternative answer to that question. – AxelT May 18 '23 at 08:05
  • other sum ?? More plots would be welcome ofcourse. – mick May 18 '23 at 19:14