I am struggling to prove that a sequence $(a_n)$ diverges to infinity if its sequence of averages $s_n=\frac1n\sum_{k=1}^n a_n$ diverges to infinity.
My attempt:
We prove the contrapositive. Let $N\in\mathbb N$. Pick $n=N+1$. Suppose $(a_n)$ does not diverge to infinity, i.e. $a_n<M$ for some $M\in\mathbb R$. Then,
$$s_n=\frac1n\sum_{k=1}^N a_k+\frac{a_n}{n}<\sum_{k=1}^N a_k + M.$$
Let $M'=\sum_{k=1}^N a_k + M$, and we have $s_n<M'$ for all $N\in\mathbb N$. Hence, $(s_n)$ does not diverge to infinity. QED.
The problem with my proof is that $M'$ is dependent on the value of arbitrary $N$. I am trying to find a way to eliminate $M'$'s dependency on $N$. I am thinking about using the fact that $\sum_{k=1}^N a_k<\sum_{k=1}^\infty a_k$ but I don't know whether this infinite sum converges.