Wikipedia's List of formulae involving $\pi$ claims $$\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{(-1)^{(n^2-n)/2}}{2n+1}=1+\frac{1}{3}-\frac{1}{5}-\frac{1}{7}+\cdots=\frac{\pi}{2\sqrt{2}}$$ and cites Chrystal's Algebra, but I don't have access to that. How can we prove the identity?
It is similar to the famous $$\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{(-1)^n}{2n+1}=\frac{\pi}{4}$$ (Why is $1-\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{5}-\frac{1}{7}+\cdots = \frac{\pi}{4}$?) but the signs are changed. Does it follow from that famous one by some clever series manipulation?