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I understand Gauss's law. I also understand that by gauss's law, for the infinite plate of charge(uniformly distributed), Electric field is the same everywhere which means it doesn't depend on the distance.

While I truly understand the proof of gauss's law and also its usage and proof why E is the same everywhere for infinite plane of charge, I can't still make sense of it logically in a physical sense.

Imagine there's infinite length of plate. Then, from it, at distance P, we know E is σ/2ε. But now, if we imagine the point from plate at distance P+100, we can easily see that there's higher distance between P+100 and each charge than it was for the point P. So the electric field definitely must be smaller, but it's not since however we proved it for point P, the same proof will give us exactly the same for P+100.

What am I missing in terms of logical explanation(no need to include formulas, I understand them)?

UPDATE

@J.Murray | @Jacob Stuligross, I think there're lots of approximations being made here.

  1. we assume the ring can be rolled and used as a rectangle whose width is dx(the thickness of ring) and height as 2px(x is radius). x is definitely inner radius. Though, it quite won't be rectangle as if you say we got dx as thickness, then after rolling the ring, one height is x, second height is 2p(x+dx). So if you still treat it rectangle, we definitely lose some very small rectangle areas and are we sure it's so small charge won't be there ?

  2. from the above point to the ring's points, cone is assumed to be drawn. While I agree that from apex to each point of the outer ring's edge, they're the same height(important since if not we can't treat it as if area * E_change holds true. if they're the same height, then true, all points of rings are distanced away from P by the same value, but this assumption means that there should not be multiple charges in the shell area(outer - inner). If there're more than 1 charge there, distance from it to our reference point wouldn't be the same as the distance between apex and outer edge. Hence calculation won't be fully correct, but since you bring dx there, i assume it's small, but still holds charges. if it holds multiple charges, it's bad. Any thoughts ?

Giorgi
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2 Answers2

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The contribution to the field due to any particular patch of charge on the plate has a component which is perpendicular to the plate and a component which is parallel to the plate. When you sum over the entire plate, the parallel components cancel each other out and the perpendicular components add together to give you your net field.

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Since the $\vec E_\parallel$'s all cancel out due to symmetry, the relevant contribution is $E_\perp$, given by

$$E_\perp = \frac{dA}{r^2}\cos(\theta)=dA \frac{d}{(x^2+d^2)^{3/2}}$$

where I've ignored the Coulomb constant and charge density. When we make a tiny step $d\mapsto d+\delta d$, the change becomes $$\delta E_\perp = \frac{x^2-2d^2}{r^5} \delta d$$

Observe for $x>d\sqrt{2}$, $E_\perp$ actually increases when you take a step away. Even though the magnitude of the force goes down, the change in angle more than compensates. Defining polar coordinates $(x,\phi)$ on the plane, we can write the total contribution as

$$\int_0^{2\pi}\mathrm d\phi \int_0^\infty x\mathrm dx\ \delta E_\perp = 2\pi \delta d\left[\int_0^{d\sqrt{2}} \mathrm dx \ x\left(\frac{x^2-2d^2}{(x^2+d^2)^{5/2}}\right) + \int_{d\sqrt{2}}^\infty \mathrm dx \ x\left(\frac{x^2-2d^2}{(x^2+d^2)^{5/2}}\right)\right]$$ $$= 2\pi \delta d \left[-\frac{2}{3d\sqrt{3}} + \frac{2}{3d\sqrt{3}}\right] = 0$$

So the take-away is this: When you move away from the plate, the magnitude of the field from each patch decreases as you'd expect. However, for sufficiently far away patches, this results in an increase in the perpendicular component of the field due to the corresponding change in angle. When you sum over the whole plate, the positive changes to $E_\perp$ (which correspond to patches with $x>d\sqrt{2}$) precisely cancel the negative changes (corresponding to patches with $x<d/\sqrt{2}$) with the net effect being that the total field does not change.


Now that the intuition is (hopefully) there, we can see this more cleanly by noting that the total perpendicular force can be written

$$ E_\perp = \int_0^\infty \mathrm dx \frac{2\pi x d}{(x^2+d^2)^{3/2}}$$ If we define $u\equiv x/d$ and substitute, we see that the $d$-dependence completely drops out. Even more simply, observe that if we assume

$$E_\perp = k_C^a\sigma^b d^c$$ then dimensional analysis yields immediately that $c=0$.

J. Murray
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  • Great answer. I'm almost there. what did you mean by "Observe for >2‾√, ⊥ actually increases when you take a step away". If you plugin in x=d and then x=2d, you will note that ⊥ will be less for x=2d, so it decreases when you increase x – Giorgi Jun 09 '23 at 15:35
  • @Chemistry I decided to switch from $F$ to $E$, sorry. What I'm working with isn't $E_\perp$, it's $\delta E_\perp$ - the change in the perpendicular component which occurs when you take a step $\delta d$ away from the plate. For $x>d\sqrt{2}$, $\delta E_\perp > 0$. – J. Murray Jun 09 '23 at 15:41
  • If you stand away from the plate by 2d in y and by 2d in x, and I stand away from the plate by 4d in y and 4d in x, then E should be the same. The logic you apply is for you, ⊥ is less for you than for me, but ⃗ ∥ is more for you than for me. and differences are the same, hence the same E for both of us. correct ? What I didn't get is why you bring $x<d\sqrt{2}$ cases. For my example, whats the proof differences are the same ?(meaning as much as ⊥ increases, by the same value, ⃗ ∥ decreases between you and me) – Giorgi Jun 09 '23 at 16:00
  • The thing about $x<d\sqrt{2}$ case is that there're much more (infinitely more) points after $x>d\sqrt{2}$ than it is for $x<d\sqrt{2}$, so saying that at every point, it cancels out mightn't be correct – Giorgi Jun 09 '23 at 16:05
  • @Chemistry I think you're misunderstanding me. I'm saying that if you are currently sitting at some distance $d$ away from the plate, you are experiencing an electric field $E_\perp$. This field is due to the contributions from little patches of charge which cover the entire plate. If you now take a tiny step away from the plate, then the contributions to $E_\perp$ from the patches with $x> d\sqrt{2}$ increase while the contributions from the patches with $x<d\sqrt{2}$ decrease, and those effects exactly cancel each other out, leaving $E_\perp$ unchanged. – J. Murray Jun 09 '23 at 16:06
  • @Chemistry The total contribution to the change from the region $x<d\sqrt{2}$ (which is negative) exactly cancels the total contribution from the region $x>d\sqrt{2}$ (which is positive) as evidenced by the fact that I did the integral explicitly. – J. Murray Jun 09 '23 at 16:09
  • "If you now take a tiny step away from the plate, then the contributions to ⊥ from the patches with >2‾√increase while the contributions from the patches with <2‾√decrease". then definitely, we got more plates for which $x>d\sqrt{2}$ which means per plate, ⊥ increases by much less magnitude, than ⃗ ∥ decreases. correct ? – Giorgi Jun 09 '23 at 16:18
  • @Chemistry $\vec E_\parallel$ is always zero because of the symmetry of the problem. If you're talking about $E_\perp$, then no - the fact that the region $x>d\sqrt{2}$ is larger than the region $x<d\sqrt{2}$ is irrelevant - the effects due to the two regions precisely cancel.

    I fail to see the issue here. Your problem was that you didn't understand how the field could stay the same because the force due to each individual charge would decrease. That's true, but you failed to account for the fact that we are interested in the perpendicular component of the field, not the full magnitude.

    – J. Murray Jun 09 '23 at 16:24
  • @Chemistry When you move away, the magnitude of the field due to each charge goes down, but the perpendicular component actually goes up for far-away charges (those with $x>d\sqrt{2}$). The decrease in $E_\perp$ due to the nearby charges is exactly compensated for by the increase in $E_\perp$ due to the far-away charges, and the total remains the same. You now know this (1) from the proof due to Gauss' law, (2) for the physical reason RE: $E_\perp$ in this answer, and (3) because the dependence of $E_\perp$ on $d$ explicitly drops out of the integral I wrote at the end. – J. Murray Jun 09 '23 at 16:29
  • Amazing. Thanks so much ! I will give it one more thought later today and hopefully, I won't have any doubts(right now i don't) haha – Giorgi Jun 09 '23 at 16:43
  • whenever you got time, could you tell me why you put x in the second integral ? (d ⊥) - why x here ? – Giorgi Jun 10 '23 at 09:43
  • @Chemistry the $x$ is because the circumference of a circle is the radius times $2\pi$. In this case, $x$ is the radius. So the total area of the region with the same $E_\perp$ is $2\pi\cdot x\cdot dx$ – Jacob Stuligross Jun 12 '23 at 05:18
  • @Chemistry Yes, Jacob is right. The reason that $x$ is present is that when integrating in (plane) polar coordinates with angle $\phi$ and radial coordinate $x$, the integral measure takes the form $\mathrm d A = x\ \mathrm dx\ \mathrm d\phi$. – J. Murray Jun 13 '23 at 08:12
  • @JacobStuligross J.Murray Hey folks. I updated the question(included very interesting 2 ideas which could be interesting for you to see). Let me know what you think in these comments – Giorgi Jun 13 '23 at 13:30
  • @Chemistry this is a Calculus question. The integral is exact. Think about any integral $\int f(x)\mathrm dx$. If we use a finite d$x$ to approximate, then yes $f(x) \neq f(x+\mathrm dx)$. But the integral doesn't use finite d$x$, and its result is exact. If you want a more thorough answer, you'll need to ask another question. – Jacob Stuligross Jun 13 '23 at 14:34
  • @JacobStuligross here it is https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/768125/infinite-plate-of-charge-questions-about-infinity. Thank you – Giorgi Jun 13 '23 at 14:57
  • @Chemistry (1) Nothing is approximate here. The integral is the limit taken as the width of the rings goes to zero, in which case any approximation which would be present in for non-zero $\mathrm dx$ vanishes and the result becomes exact. (2) The charge distribution is assumed to be continuous and not consist of individual, discrete charges. – J. Murray Jun 15 '23 at 17:40
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This is because infinity is a very weird thing. In this case, it presents a scale invariance to our system. That is, an infinite plate doesn't appear to get any smaller as you move away from it.

If you consider any individual point, its contribution does weaken as you move further away, but if you then take the sum contribution of all of the points within some given solid angle, that number of points will increase as you move away and the contributions of the additional points offsets the loss due to distance.

We consider the infinite plate because it closely resembles what is experienced by a charged particle very close to a finite plate much larger than it. In such a system, while there isn't true scale invariance, it's very close.

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    An infinite charged line also has scale invariance, but its field weakens as the reciprocal of the distance from the line. So why is scale invariance a good explanation for the uniform field of an infinite plane? – Ghoster Jun 10 '23 at 00:32
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    Because we live in 3D, not 2D. This means electric fields from point charges fall off by an inverse square law rather than just an inverse law. For more info: https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/44515/electric-field-and-electric-potential-of-a-point-charge-in-2d-and-1d – Logan J. Fisher Jun 10 '23 at 00:40