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Show that for any $n \in \mathbb{N}$, $$\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_0^{2\pi}\cos^{2n}(t)dt = \frac{1 \cdot 3 \cdot 5 \cdots(2n-1)}{2 \cdot 4 \cdot 6 \cdots 2n}$$ To solve this problem, I was thinking that I would let $\cos(t)= \frac{e^{it} + e^{-it}}{2}$, then the integral will have the form: $$\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_0^{2\pi} \left (\frac{e^{it} + e^{-it}}{2} \right)^{2n}dt$$

From this point, I was stuck. So, would anyone please help me to walk through this problem.

Siminore
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Alexander
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5 Answers5

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You were heading in the correct direction. Using the binomial theorem and the orthogonality of the basis functions $e^{imx}$ on $[0,2\pi]$, we have

$$\begin{align} \frac{1}{2\pi}\int_0^{2\pi}\cos^{2n}x\,dx&=\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_0^{2\pi}\left(\frac{e^{ix}+e^{-ix}}{2}\right)^{2n}\,dx\tag 1\\\\ &=\frac{1}{2\pi}\frac{1}{2^{2n}}\,\sum_{k=0}^{2n}\binom{2n}{k}\int_0^{2\pi}e^{i(2k-2n)x}\,dx \tag 2\\\\ &=\frac{1}{2^{2n}}\binom{2n}{n}\tag 3\\\\ &=\frac{1\cdot 2\cdot 3\cdot 4 \cdots (2n-3)(2n-2)(2n-1)(2n)}{(2\cdot 4\cdot 6\cdots (2n-2)(2n))^2}\\\\ &=\frac{1\cdot 2\cdot 3\cdots (2n-1)}{2\cdot 4\cdot 6\cdots (2n-2)(2n)}\\\\ &=\frac{(2n-1)!!}{(2n)!!} \end{align}$$

as was to be shown!

In arriving at $(1)$ we used Euler's Identity $\cos x = \frac{e^{ix}+e^{-ix}}{2}$

In going from $(1)$ to $(2)$, we used the binomial expansion $(x+y)^n=\sum_{k=0}^{n}\binom{n}{k}x^ky^{n-k}$ with $n\to 2n$, $x\to e^{ix}$, and $y\to e^{-ix}$.

In going from $(2)$ to $(3)$, we used the fact that $\int_0^{2\pi}e^{i(2k-2n)}\,dx=0$ for $k\ne n$ and $\int_0^{2\pi}e^{i(2k-2n)}\,dx=2\pi$ for $k=n$.

Mark Viola
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you can see that for $k \in \mathbb{Z}$ the integral of $e^{ikt}$ on $[0,2\pi]$ is zero unless $k=0$.

so from a binomial expansion of your integrand we obtain $\binom{2n}{n}2^{-2n}$

a little manipulation with the resulting fraction will give your result.

David Holden
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This should be a direct consequence of $$ \cos^{2n}(x) = \frac{1}{2^{2n}} \left[ \binom{2n}{n} + \sum\limits_{k=0}^{n-1} 2 \binom{2n}{k} \cos((2n-2k)x) \right], $$ which can be shown via induction and the equation $$ \cos(\alpha)\cos(\beta) = \frac{1}{2}\left[ \cos(\alpha-\beta) + \cos(\alpha+\beta) \right]. $$

andre
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In arriving at we used Euler's identity Because here you have cos in 2 dimensional function but that identity stands for cosh which is in three dimensional I must suggest you to open the cos(power) 2n , which is equal to (1+ cos (2n))/2n and you will arrive on your answer

1

For $\gamma:[0,2 \pi] \rightarrow \mathbb{C}, \gamma(t):=\mathrm{e}^{\mathrm{i} t}$ and $f \in C\left(\partial U_{1}(0)\right)$ there is this nice equality $$ \int_{0}^{2 \pi} f\left(\mathrm{e}^{\mathrm{i} t}\right) d t=\int_{\gamma} \frac{f(z)}{\mathrm{i} z} d z $$ wich makes the computation after writing $\cos^{2n}(x)$ in terms of exponential functions much easier. $ f(z) $ becomes $$ f(z) = \left(z+\frac{1}{z}\right)^{2n} = \frac{(z^2+1)^{2n}}{z^{2n}} $$

Continuing from here with the binomial theorem is a little bit easier to see (it was for me atleast) and you then get your result with the Residue theorem.

Samir
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  • can you please continue with your answer? I don't understand how you use the $f(z)=\left(z+\frac{1}{z}\right)^{2n}= \frac{\left( z^{2}+1 \right) ^{2n} }{z^{2n}}$ – David Jun 05 '21 at 21:34